Random Algebra

Given functions
f(a,b) = random(a) < random(b)
and
g(a,b) = a < random(a+b)

which if of them is more likely to result into 1, if random(n) returns arbitrary number in range of [0;n)?

Justify your answer.

>>41

so they're equal?

Yes, I think it's definitely equal. random(a+b) is always some very small number (<1) above random(a)+random(b) but that's probably an artifact of the pseudorandom number generator.